We have a customer in Hungary, with whom we deal on an FCA Seller’s Premises basis. Here is part of an e-mail we have just received from our customer: “All rights, title and interest in components delivered to XXXXX shall remain with Supplier until such components are delivered at factory. For absolute clarity and confirmation Incoterms remain unchanged. Freight cost responsibility remains as per current terms. Duty/Tax remains as is, under current term.”
What is your take on this proposal? It makes no sense to me — I don’t see how Incoterms can be FCA Seller’s Premise when we retain title right up until delivery.